Thread: Do infinite integers exist?

Ooh, I think I made a mistake. What I came up with is obviously nonsensical -- a little slip of the decimal point or something. That said, I should have explained more clearly that the number I was working with was not intended to derive exactly from reversed pi, but to be a little one side of it, as in a previous example, and would be accompanied later by another number a little the other side of it to establish an interval; but the point was, before proceeding to finishing the interval, to try to evaluate the number on the one side. I came up with an erroneous value for that; I think you did it right. However, in view of your result, it would appear that not only do successive approximations not converge, they diverge markedly. So the process seems to be getting nowhere in finding a value for reverse pi.

Originally Posted by Atomic-S

Ooh, I think I made a mistake. What I came up with is obviously nonsensical -- a little slip of the decimal point or something. That said, I should have explained more clearly that the number I was working with was not intended to derive exactly from reversed pi, but to be a little one side of it, as in a previous example, and would be accompanied later by another number a little the other side of it to establish an interval; but the point was, before proceeding to finishing the interval, to try to evaluate the number on the one side. I came up with an erroneous value for that; I think you did it right. However, in view of your result, it would appear that not only do successive approximations not converge, they diverge markedly. So the process seems to be getting nowhere in finding a value for reverse pi.

Yea, I'm not coming up with a good way to do this either. Repeating "infinite integers" are easy; non-repeating, we need a different approach. Instead of a convergence result, some kind of divergence result