If you want to know how a proof is done, either read a book or read my posts where I make them, they are properly done. If you were one of my students comming with that when you are NOT younger than 18, I'd be laughing and asking if you are serious. This is nothing short of pointless rambling by a lunatic with delusions of grandure. Thinking with your infantile understanding of mathematics you could possibly get an Abels prize and solve one of the most difficult mathematical questions in less than one page is nothing short of hubris.
Last edited by emperorzelos; 08-12-2016 at 01:15 AM.
My objections to your attempts have nothing to do with confusion over whether the theorem is true or false.
You seem to be focusing on trying to shoehorn the theorem into the binomial form , where rem(a,b) represents the other terms of the binomial expansion)
We know that c cannot be (a+b), nor similarly can cn be (a+b)n
That means your approach is irrelevant to the proof of Fermat's Last Theorem
What you have proved, is that (a+b)n cannot equal an+bn, except when n=1, but
you have not proven that (a+b-1)n cannot equal an+bn
nor have you proven that (a+b-2)n cannot equal an+bn. In fact, we know it can, for n=2, but not for any other n